Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

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There's no rule.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Republican Trump is a billionaire, president, won't be held accountable for multiple felonies, and pretty much has whatever he wants. So why is he always whining and crying about stupid, pointless stuff? Is he incapable of happiness?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Would you let your son wear leggings to school?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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